CASA Theory Exam Practice Questions: 20 Sample Questions for RPL and PPL (2026)

To pass a CASA pilot theory exam, you need more than reading the study guide — you need to practise answering questions under the same conditions you'll face on exam day. Below are 20 CASA theory exam practice questions covering the core topic areas for both the RPL and PPL exams, complete with full answer explanations.

How to use these questions: Cover the answer and explanation. Commit to an answer before revealing it. The retrieval attempt — even if you get it wrong — is what builds the memory. These questions match the style and difficulty of actual CASA theory exams.

About CASA theory exams

CASA requires all student pilots to pass a written theory exam before being issued their pilot certificate. The main exams are:

• RPL theory exam — 37 multiple-choice questions, 90 minutes, 70% pass mark (26/37 correct)
• PPL theory exam — 50 multiple-choice questions, 90 minutes, 70% pass mark (35/50 correct)

Both exams cover the same core subject areas: aerodynamics, meteorology, air law and regulations, navigation, performance charts, human factors, aircraft general knowledge, flight instruments, engines, and weight and balance. The PPL exam goes deeper into each topic and covers additional subjects like navigation instruments and radio communications.

The "BAK exam" (Basic Aeronautical Knowledge) was replaced by the RPL theory exam in 2014. If you see references to the BAK, they are testing the same material.

Aerodynamics practice questions

Question 1 (RPL level)

During a level coordinated turn, which force provides the centripetal acceleration toward the centre of the turn?

• A) The horizontal component of thrust
• B) The horizontal component of lift
• C) The vertical component of drag
• D) Weight resolved along the bank angle

Answer: B — The horizontal component of lift

Explanation: In a banked turn, total lift is tilted. The vertical component of lift balances weight (maintaining altitude), while the horizontal component is directed toward the centre of the turn — this is the centripetal force. This is why you must increase back-pressure in a turn to maintain altitude: the vertical component of lift decreases as bank angle increases, so you need more total lift.

Question 2 (RPL level)

The critical angle of attack is the angle at which:

• A) The lift-to-drag ratio is maximised
• B) Lift equals weight in level flight
• C) Airflow over the upper wing surface separates and the wing stalls
• D) The aircraft reaches its maximum speed in level flight

Answer: C — Airflow separates and the wing stalls

Explanation: The critical angle of attack is a fixed aerodynamic property of the wing — typically around 15–18° for most training aircraft. Beyond this angle, smooth airflow over the upper surface breaks down, lift collapses, and the wing stalls. This happens at the same angle regardless of airspeed, weight, or altitude — which is why stall speed increases with load factor.

Question 3 (RPL level)

Induced drag is greatest when:

• A) The aircraft is flying fast and level in cruise
• B) The aircraft is flying slow with a high angle of attack
• C) The flaps are fully retracted
• D) The aircraft is descending at idle power

Answer: B — Flying slow with a high angle of attack

Explanation: Induced drag is inversely proportional to airspeed squared: as speed decreases, induced drag increases rapidly. At slow speed (high angle of attack), induced drag dominates total drag. This is why the "back side of the power curve" is dangerous — adding back-pressure increases drag faster than it increases lift.

Meteorology practice questions

Question 4 (RPL level)

Which weather conditions are associated with a warm front in the Southern Hemisphere?

• A) Sudden onset of heavy showers and thunderstorms along a narrow band
• B) Gradual deterioration over a wide area: high cloud first, then lowering stratus and continuous rain
• C) Clear skies followed by a gusty wind shift
• D) Rapid improvement as the front passes

Answer: B — Gradual deterioration: high cloud first, then lowering stratus and continuous rain

Explanation: A warm front is slow-moving, with warm air gradually overriding cold air. The weather signature begins hundreds of kilometres ahead: high cirrus, then cirrostratus with halo, then altostratus, then low nimbostratus with continuous rain. Contrast with a cold front (Option A), which brings a narrow, intense weather band.

Question 5 (RPL level)

Which cloud type is most associated with severe turbulence and icing?

• A) Cirrus
• B) Stratus
• C) Cumulonimbus
• D) Altostratus

Answer: C — Cumulonimbus

Explanation: Cumulonimbus (Cb) contains extreme updrafts and downdrafts (potentially exceeding 6,000 ft/min), severe turbulence, heavy rain, hail, lightning, and icing throughout. VFR pilots must avoid Cb by wide margins. The correct response when encountering Cb unexpectedly is to turn 180° and exit.

Question 6 (PPL level)

A TAF reads: "TEMPO 1418 4000 RA BKN010". This means:

• A) Permanent conditions 1400Z–1800Z: 4 km visibility in rain, broken cloud at 1,000 ft
• B) Temporary conditions 1400Z–1800Z, each occurrence less than 60 min: 4 km in rain, broken cloud at 1,000 ft
• C) The aerodrome will be below VMC minima between 1400Z and 1800Z
• D) A temporary improvement to 4,000 m visibility between 1400Z and 1800Z

Answer: B — Temporary conditions, each occurrence less than 60 min

Explanation: TEMPO indicates temporary fluctuations lasting less than one hour at a time within the specified time group. BKN010 is broken cloud at 1,000 ft. A TEMPO with low cloud and reduced visibility is a red flag for VFR planning — you must plan for these conditions potentially occurring during your flight.

Air law and regulations questions

Question 7 (RPL level)

In Class G airspace, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR at and below 3,000 ft AGL (or 1,000 ft above terrain, whichever is higher) is:

• A) 1,500 metres
• B) 3,000 metres
• C) 5,000 metres
• D) 8,000 metres

Answer: C — 5,000 metres (5 km)

Explanation: CASR Part 91 sets the minimum flight visibility for day VFR in Class G airspace at 5 km. This applies both at low levels (below 3,000 ft AGL / 1,000 ft above terrain) and at higher altitudes in Class G. At very low levels and slow speeds there are additional clear-of-cloud requirements. Memorise this: 5 km minimum visibility is the baseline for all VFR Class G flight.

Question 8 (RPL level)

A pilot must not fly within how many hours of consuming alcohol?

• A) 6 hours
• B) 8 hours
• C) 12 hours
• D) 24 hours

Answer: B — 8 hours

Explanation: CASR 61.087 prohibits acting as pilot in command (PIC) or co-pilot within 8 hours of consuming alcohol. The blood alcohol limit for pilots is 0.02 BAC (lower than the 0.05 road limit). The 8-hour rule is a minimum — alcohol can impair performance well beyond 8 hours. This is the "8 hours bottle to throttle" rule.

Question 9 (RPL level)

At a non-towered aerodrome with a CTAF, a pilot joining the circuit should broadcast:

• A) Only on final approach
• B) At the joining point and on each leg (crosswind, downwind, base, final)
• C) Only if another aircraft is known to be in the circuit
• D) Once, immediately before landing

Answer: B — At the joining point and on each leg

Explanation: At CTAF aerodromes, pilots make positional radio broadcasts to advise other traffic. Recommended calls: inbound (10 nm or at circuit altitude), circuit join, downwind, base, and final. These allow other pilots to build a traffic picture even without a response. The join call is particularly important as it announces your intentions to aircraft already in the circuit.

Navigation practice questions

Question 10 (RPL level)

Your planned track is 090°M. The wind is from 360° at 20 kt. Your true airspeed is 100 kt. The wind correction angle (WCA) is approximately:

• A) 0° — north wind has no effect on an eastbound track
• B) 11° left
• C) 11° right
• D) 20° left

Answer: B — 11° left

Explanation: Wind from 360° (north) on an eastbound track is a pure left crosswind — it pushes the aircraft south (right of track). To maintain track, crab into the wind (point the nose left). WCA ≈ sin⁻¹(20/100) ≈ 11.5°, applied left. Mental shortcut: "wind from north on east track pushes you right — correct left."

Question 11 (RPL level)

On a 1:500,000 VNC, a pilot measures 4 cm between their position and a waypoint. The actual distance is approximately:

• A) 11 nautical miles
• B) 20 nautical miles
• C) 22 nautical miles
• D) 40 nautical miles

Answer: A — 11 nautical miles

Explanation: At 1:500,000, 1 cm = 5 km on the ground. 4 cm × 5 km = 20 km. Converting: 20 km ÷ 1.852 = 10.8 nm ≈ 11 nm. Quick rule for the VNC (1:500,000): 1 cm ≈ 2.7 nm. Always confirm whether answer choices are in km or nm — a common exam trap.

Question 12 (PPL level)

The magnetic compass is most unreliable when:

• A) Turning at more than 30° of bank
• B) Accelerating or decelerating on northerly or southerly headings
• C) Flying in all turns in the Southern Hemisphere
• D) Decelerating on easterly or westerly headings

Answer: B — Accelerating/decelerating on northerly or southerly headings

Explanation: Acceleration/deceleration error: when accelerating or decelerating on N/S headings, the compass card tilts under inertial forces, allowing the dip component of Earth's magnetic field to affect the reading and show a false turn. The error is maximum on N/S headings (where dip is maximum) and minimal on E/W headings.

Performance chart questions

Question 13 (RPL level)

When using the CASA Figure 3 takeoff chart, the temperature is ISA+20. Compared to ISA temperature, your takeoff distance will be:

• A) Shorter — hotter air improves engine efficiency
• B) Longer — hotter air is less dense, reducing thrust and lift
• C) The same — temperature only affects cruise performance
• D) Shorter — reduced density decreases drag

Answer: B — Longer, because hotter air is less dense

Explanation: High temperature reduces air density. Less-dense air means less mass flow through the engine (reduced thrust) and less lift at any indicated airspeed — both increasing the required takeoff run. ISA+20 is a significant density reduction. This is critical for hot-day operations at inland Australian aerodromes in summer.

Question 14 (RPL level)

The CASA Figure 4 landing chart shows 450 m for given conditions. This represents:

• A) Ground roll only, from touchdown to full stop
• B) Air distance only, from 50 ft to touchdown
• C) Total landing distance: from 50 ft obstacle height at threshold to full stop
• D) The distance with maximum braking and flaps, ground roll only

Answer: C — Total distance from 50 ft obstacle to full stop

Explanation: CASA performance charts show landing distance over a 50 ft obstacle — the total from 50 ft height at the threshold to a complete stop. This combines the airborne segment (50 ft to touchdown) and the ground roll. When comparing to available runway length, add at least 43% safety margin. Chart figures represent ideal conditions — not real-world safety margins.

Human factors questions

Question 15 (RPL level)

Which best describes "plan continuation bias" (get-there-itis)?

• A) The tendency to continue into deteriorating conditions due to commitment to the original plan
• B) A type of spatial disorientation on long cross-country flights
• C) The tendency to rush checklists to get airborne quickly
• D) Over-reliance on autopilot during cruise

Answer: A — Continuing into deteriorating conditions due to plan commitment

Explanation: Plan continuation bias is one of the most common fatal accident contributors. Pilots continue toward the destination despite clear evidence that conditions have deteriorated, because the original plan creates psychological momentum. Key triggers: time pressure, passengers waiting, sunk cost ("already halfway there"). The correct response: every flight should have pre-planned decision points — reversal or diversion is always the right call when conditions are marginal.

Question 16 (RPL level)

Hypoxia is a risk for VFR pilots because:

• A) It only occurs above 18,000 ft
• B) Mild hypoxia begins impairing performance from approximately 10,000 ft, without obvious symptoms
• C) VFR pilots are protected because visual reference to the ground prevents hypoxia
• D) Hypoxia symptoms are obvious and easy to self-recognise

Answer: B — Impairment begins from ~10,000 ft, often without obvious symptoms

Explanation: Hypoxia impairs night vision from approximately 5,000 ft and measurable cognitive impairment begins around 10,000 ft. The insidious danger: hypoxia reduces the ability to recognise its own symptoms. CASR recommends supplemental oxygen above 10,000 ft for more than 30 minutes and mandates it above 13,000 ft. VFR flights over high Australian terrain can easily reach these altitudes.

Frequently asked questions

How many questions are in the CASA RPL theory exam?

The RPL theory exam has 37 multiple-choice questions, with a 90-minute time limit. You need 26 correct (70%) to pass.

How many questions are in the CASA PPL theory exam?

The PPL theory exam has 50 multiple-choice questions, with a 90-minute time limit. You need 35 correct (70%) to pass.

What topics are covered in CASA theory exams?

Both the RPL and PPL exams cover: aerodynamics, meteorology, air law and regulations, navigation, performance charts, human factors, aircraft general knowledge, flight instruments, engines, and weight and balance. The PPL exam goes deeper and adds subjects like navigation instruments and radio communications.

How hard is the CASA theory exam?

With 60–80 hours of structured study (including regular practice questions), most students pass on their first attempt. The RPL exam is considered manageable; the PPL requires more depth, particularly in navigation and meteorology.

Can I use a calculator in the CASA theory exam?

Yes — a non-programmable calculator is permitted. For the RPL, you will need it for performance chart calculations and navigation time/speed/distance problems.

Practice more with The Pilot Exam

These 16 questions sample the core topics — but with 37 to 50 questions on exam day covering every subject, systematic practice across the full question bank is what gets you consistently above 70%.

The Pilot Exam has 1,000+ CASA-aligned practice questions with AI-verified answers, plus interactive performance chart practice (Figures 3, 4, 5, and more). The free tier includes one full timed mock exam and one chart session — no credit card required.

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